2^x = 32, we know that, bases being equal, powers
can be equated
i.e.
2^x = 2^5 => x=5
We also know that x^0 = 1, where x is any natural number.
Now, let x be 1
In this case,
1^0 = 1 -- (1)
1^1 = 1 -- (2)
Since (1) = (2)
We have, 0 = 1
Similarly we can prove that any number is equal to ANY other number. Simple
1^3 = 1^5000 => 3 = 5000
And hence, any x is equal to any y eh ??!!!!! :P
5 comments:
hmm....same as 1 = 2.
Well, as anonymous has alluded to, it goes on to prove that any number is equal to any other number. 1^5 = 1^8000, which means, 5 = 8000 ... :D
Cool. Roundabout, but cool.
there is no rule that states that:
if x^y = x^z, y=z. sorry, but u can't just do what you like with math.. ur theories have to be backed up by axioms/rules.
Well, check out what I have said earlier about 2^5 and 32. You will understand, its about the Theorem of Indices.
Post a Comment